if they are legally married and it was bought aft the marriage, i believe she would have legal claim to the house in a divorce, whether her name is in the deed or not, no? am i wrong lawyers? if they are not legally married, and this was a parting thing, why not have her name on it to ease a transition to her, rather than his name only, then transferring it to her? lawyers? and lawyers who follow other skeptics see this?

Posted on by Aeltri

ummzaksbest:

Yeah, I am not a lawyer, nor do I play one on TV. I’ll wait for actual lawyers to chime in. 

Because BC suspects Notmybaby would be one answer. If he knew for certain he would buy SH and the kid a house, with her on the title. Everything points to uncertainty on BC’s behalf and given the BI alone I don’t blame him. 

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